Jesus quotes the first two verses of Isaiah 61 when He teaches in the synagogue in Nazareth. It was early in His ministry, shortly after His temptation in the wilderness. The account of reading the actual verses is only recorded in Luke. There are some slight differences in wording when Jesus reads from the book of Isaiah and the book of Isaiah in my Old Testament. I am not questioning the validity, because they are all God's Words, I just find it curious that there is a whole phrase that I don't see in Isaiah 61:1 and what Jesus read in Luke 4:18. The phrase is "....and recovering sight to the blind..." The rest of the verse is almost word for word. If Jesus added it, it is His right, because they are His words, and He can add what He wants to. Did He add it in for this particular occasion, because he was talking to a hometown audience? Was He trying to emphasize that the Nazarenes were blind?
|Jesus read from the Book of Isaiah--Taken from The Children's Friend (Part 2)|
By Mrs. Adelaide Bee Evans
Review and Herald Publishing Company, 1911, 1928